The seven times prophecy, comes from the seven times prophecy Daniel gave about King Nebuchadnezzar’s seven-year sickness. The King has a dream about a tree being cut down, and seven times passing over it. Some assert that the tree dream only applied to Nebuchadnezzar, that he would have his sickness for 7 years and then be restored after that 7 years, and it has no further application. However, it is most interesting that the word Daniel chose to use concerning the tree was not the same word used for the word ‘year’. He used the word iddan which means epoch, age, seasons, or times.
The word iddan is not what would be used merely to describe one year if one year is what is meant. There is a different word used to describe the word ‘year’. For example, the word for year in Hebrew is shana. By using the word iddan it becomes evident that Daniel wanted to convey the thought that something was meant beyond a simple seven years. Otherwise, why not just use the word for years, shana ?
What can we conclude concerning Daniel’s use of the word iddan? Is that Daniel must have used that word for ‘times’ for some purpose, and was directed by Jehovah to do so. We have to wonder why? Why use the word ‘times’ instead of years? There must be a reason. If the tree dream is only to be applied to Nebuchadnezzar then why didn’t the prophecy simply say 7 years. Why 7 times?
Consider the fact that Revelation later shows us that 7 times can equal 2,520. So, apparently it was meant for 7 times to be deciphered as 2,520 years in order to show us that it has greater significance other than just the 7 years upon Nebuchadnezzar. Otherwise, why the clues?
There can be no doubt that the mention of times in Revelation was only written to help us figure out the length of seven times in Daniel. Otherwise, John could have just been directed to write 1,260 days — there was no need whatsoever for him to repeat himself and also write ‘time, times and half of times’, because it does not help us in the interpretation of Revelation at all. In other words, the 7 times in Daniel do not help us to figure out what the 3½ times are in Revelation. It is the other way around.
Consider this: If 7 times mean only 7 years, then Daniel could have simply said 7 years. Then Revelation could have simply said 3½ years or 1,260 days or 42 months. And nobody would ever even need to mention 'times' and everyone would be happy and understand it all. Furthermore, Daniel’s mention of 3½ times in connection with 1,260 days could also have been removed, as the same number — 1,260 days — is also mentioned in Revelation. The whole business of “times” is
superfluous — unless it is used as a key in understanding the 7 times.
However, because 7 times means more than simply 7 years ( as in the case with Nebuchadnezzar,) but 2,520 years in the great scheme of things, then Daniel had to use a different term other than years. He had to use a word that could convey both the 7 years upon Nebuchadnezzar and the hundreds of years spanning the Gentile times. That term he was directed by Jehovah to use was iddan or times. Since this needed to be understood, then John was directed to use the same terminology, ‘times’, to show the length of seven times and thus the book of Daniel could be understood by Seekers of Truth.
In view of the foregoing, is it reasonable to think that Daniel 4 is only about Nebuchadnezzar? Why does Daniel specifically use the word ‘times’ rather than years? And why does Revelation then help us to see the length of 7 times? And why does Daniel tell of 7 times passing over until the lowliest one of mankind is set up. Dan 4:17, “to the intent that people living may know that the Most High is Ruler in the kingdom of mankind and that to the one whom he wants to, he gives it and he sets up over it even the lowliest one of mankind.” Words about the lowliest one of mankind being set up,This cannot be mere coincidence, can it?
The word iddan is not what would be used merely to describe one year if one year is what is meant. There is a different word used to describe the word ‘year’. For example, the word for year in Hebrew is shana. By using the word iddan it becomes evident that Daniel wanted to convey the thought that something was meant beyond a simple seven years. Otherwise, why not just use the word for years, shana ?
What can we conclude concerning Daniel’s use of the word iddan? Is that Daniel must have used that word for ‘times’ for some purpose, and was directed by Jehovah to do so. We have to wonder why? Why use the word ‘times’ instead of years? There must be a reason. If the tree dream is only to be applied to Nebuchadnezzar then why didn’t the prophecy simply say 7 years. Why 7 times?
Consider the fact that Revelation later shows us that 7 times can equal 2,520. So, apparently it was meant for 7 times to be deciphered as 2,520 years in order to show us that it has greater significance other than just the 7 years upon Nebuchadnezzar. Otherwise, why the clues?
There can be no doubt that the mention of times in Revelation was only written to help us figure out the length of seven times in Daniel. Otherwise, John could have just been directed to write 1,260 days — there was no need whatsoever for him to repeat himself and also write ‘time, times and half of times’, because it does not help us in the interpretation of Revelation at all. In other words, the 7 times in Daniel do not help us to figure out what the 3½ times are in Revelation. It is the other way around.
Consider this: If 7 times mean only 7 years, then Daniel could have simply said 7 years. Then Revelation could have simply said 3½ years or 1,260 days or 42 months. And nobody would ever even need to mention 'times' and everyone would be happy and understand it all. Furthermore, Daniel’s mention of 3½ times in connection with 1,260 days could also have been removed, as the same number — 1,260 days — is also mentioned in Revelation. The whole business of “times” is
superfluous — unless it is used as a key in understanding the 7 times.
However, because 7 times means more than simply 7 years ( as in the case with Nebuchadnezzar,) but 2,520 years in the great scheme of things, then Daniel had to use a different term other than years. He had to use a word that could convey both the 7 years upon Nebuchadnezzar and the hundreds of years spanning the Gentile times. That term he was directed by Jehovah to use was iddan or times. Since this needed to be understood, then John was directed to use the same terminology, ‘times’, to show the length of seven times and thus the book of Daniel could be understood by Seekers of Truth.
In view of the foregoing, is it reasonable to think that Daniel 4 is only about Nebuchadnezzar? Why does Daniel specifically use the word ‘times’ rather than years? And why does Revelation then help us to see the length of 7 times? And why does Daniel tell of 7 times passing over until the lowliest one of mankind is set up. Dan 4:17, “to the intent that people living may know that the Most High is Ruler in the kingdom of mankind and that to the one whom he wants to, he gives it and he sets up over it even the lowliest one of mankind.” Words about the lowliest one of mankind being set up,This cannot be mere coincidence, can it?
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